First NAVLE Practice Exam
Test your NAVLE-style veterinary knowledge with interactive questions, comparing AI answers to textbook references in real time.Q1:
Which of the following antiarrhythmic agents is believed to act primarily by blocking cardiac beta-adrenergic receptors?
Q2:
A veterinarian is presented with a dog that shows, on the right side, medial strabismus, a poor retractor oculi reflex, and lack of lateral gaze. Which of the following right cranial nerves is most likely affected?
Q3:
A midline ventral abdominal incision through the peritoneum cranial to the umbilicus in a dog exposes a fatty structure extending from the umbilicus to the diaphragm and the liver. This structure is most likely which of the following?
Q4:
The T wave of the electrocardiogram represents which of the following?
Q5:
Which of the following is the most likely initial route of exposure of listeriosis in cattle and sheep?
Q6:
In which of the following parasites is a hydatid cyst found in the peritoneal cavity of the intermediate host?
Q7:
Allergic and anaphylactic reactions are associated with antibody molecules bound to receptors on mast cells and basophils. In most animals, this antibody belongs to which immunoglobulin class (isotype)?
Q8:
One day after birth, a large Simmental calf that was delivered in caudal presentation is unable to bear weight on the right pelvic limb. Signs include flexion of the stifle, hock, fetlock, and pastern; inability to extend the stifle; absent patellar reflex; and flaccid quadriceps muscles. Which of the following nerves is most likely affected?
Q9:
At which of the following times are heifers most likely to ovulate?
Q10:
To which class of epithelium does ruminal epithelium belong?
Q11:
Which of the following is the most likely source of the majority of bilirubin in the plasma of healthy animals?
Q12:
Which of the following is an antidote for acetaminophen intoxication?
Q13:
A 12-year-old Morgan mare is undergoing a prepurchase examination. At rest, the animal has a heart rate of 28 beats/min and drops every fourth beat. The dysrhythmia disappears with exercise. Electrocardiogram discloses a seconddegree atrioventricular block. Which of the following advice should the veterinarian give the buyer regarding these findings?
Q14:
Increasing body temperature causes which of the following changes in blood hemoglobin and pH?
Q15:
In turkeys, the half-life of benzylpenicillin is approximately 50 minutes. If the serum concentration is measured at 10 μg/mL, in how many minutes should the drug be readministered to prevent the serum concentration from decreasing to less than 2.5 μg/mL?
Q16:
Which of the following is the most important therapeutic mechanism of action for nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as aspirin and flunixin meglumine?
Q17:
Which of the following best explains why epinephrine is used as an adjunct to local anesthetics?
Q18:
In the horse, which of the following flexures in the ascending colon separates the left ventral colon from the left dorsal colon?
Q19:
In general, which of the following receptors increases blood pressure by decreasing arteriolar radius?
Q20:
A decrease in the concentration of free (ionized) calcium in blood initially stimulates hormone secretion from which of the following organs?
Q21:
Which of the following inflammatory cells is most predominant in purulent inflammation?
Q22:
A 6-year-old dog has been treated with corticosteroids for atopic dermatitis for two weeks. In addition to leukocytosis and monocytosis, which of the following abnormalities are most likely to be found in the leukogram of this dog?
Q23:
Which of the following is normally present in samples of plasma but not in serum from a healthy domestic animal?
Q24:
Which of the following diseases of sheep is caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis?
Q25:
During an ovariohysterectomy on a 50-lb (22-kg) Golden Retriever dog, the transected right ovarian pedicle is accidentally dropped before adequate ligation. Which of the following portions of the gastrointestinal tract with its associated mesentery can be used to retract the remaining viscera and expose the right dorsal abdominal wall to reach the transected vessels?
Q26:
A 5-year-old Jersey cow has severe weight loss and watery diarrhea. A preliminary diagnosis of paratuberculosis is made and the cow is euthanized. Which of the following findings on microscopic examination of the intestine is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Q27:
A sheep operation is experiencing spontaneous abortions among the ewes and congenital deformities in lambs. A tentative diagnosis of bluetongue is made. The pathogen involved is most likely transmitted by which of the following means?
Q28:
Which of the following is the most likely intermediate host for Dipylidium caninum in dogs and cats?
Q29:
A dog breeder reports that several puppies from recent litters died within two weeks of birth. The puppies appeared healthy at birth, declined in vigor at 9 to 10 days of age, and died within several days of the onset of clinical signs. Physical examination of surviving puppies shows very pale mucous membranes. Which of the following canine parasites is the most likely causal organism?
Q30:
A cat is brought to the office for evaluation after ingesting an acetaminophen tablet. Which of the following abnormal red blood cells is most likely to be seen on a peripheral blood smear?
Q31:
Which of the following is the body's major source of erythropoietin?
Q32:
Distribution of blood flow is regulated primarily by which of the following portions of the vasculature?
Q33:
Hypoventilation of an animal during anesthesia can result in which of the following blood gas derangements?
Q34:
A 4-year-old Quarter Horse mare has lameness in its right thoracic limb with sensitivity across the heel bulbs. Nerve blocks are performed to localize the lameness. To block only the palmar region of the foot exclusive of the toe, the anesthetic is best placed in which of the following locations?
Q35:
About a fourth of a herd of 500 beef-breed cattle have an ocular discharge and are bellowing as if they are in pain. Physical examination of one of the affected animals shows inflammation of the conjunctivae and an opaque ocular discharge. Blepharospasm occurs during examination. Bacterial culture of material swabbed from mucous membranes shows a short, gram-negative organism. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
Q36:
A 3-year-old female Siamese cat is brought to the clinic because 24 hours ago the owners noticed that the cat's pupils were unequal in size. On ophthalmologic examination, the right eye is dilated and unresponsive to light. The right pupil remains dilated when light is shined into the left eye. The left eye responds normally to light and constricts when light is shined into the right eye. Physical examination shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely location of the problem?
Q37:
The first heart sound is most closely related with which part of the cardiac cycle?
Q38:
A newborn foal is being evaluated because of depression, dehydration, and anorexia. Temperature is 103°F (39.4°C). Bacterial septicemia is suspected. Antibiotic therapy with gentamicin is started at 6 mg/kg daily along with fluid therapy and nutritional measures. Which of the following is the most common and serious toxic effect that is likely to be observed in this foal after repeated treatment with gentamicin?
Q39:
Phagocytosis of bacteria is most likely to occur by which of the following cells?
Q40:
A 5-year-old Thoroughbred mare in New York develops severe diarrhea in late winter and rapidly becomes dehydrated. Numerous nematode larvae are present in the diarrheic feces. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q41:
An 8-year-old indoor/outdoor domestic shorthaired cat who resides in Colorado has clinical signs suggestive of plague. Which of the following is the most likely mode of transmission of this infection to this cat?
Q42:
The majority of red blood cells in peripheral blood are nucleated in which of the following species?
Q43:
Which of the following opioids has partial agonist activity and high affinity at mu receptors?
Q44:
In a dog with skeletal muscle lesions, results of serum studies are most likely to show increased activity of which of the following enzymes?
Q45:
How many mL of a 1:1000 epinephrine solution is equal to 0.3 mg?
Q46:
Which of the following best explains why clavulanate is added to penicillin preparations?
Q47:
In ruminants, glucose is produced primarily through the utilization of which of the following substances as a substrate for gluconeogenesis?
Q48:
During an inflammatory response, which of the following plasma components is central to the activation of the complement, coagulation, and kinin systems?
Q49:
A 5-year-old Poodle dog requires sutures for a superficial laceration on the right pelvic limb. The anesthetic regimen consisted of medetomidine, ketamine, and butorphanol. The dog becomes bradycardic and hypertensive following induction. Administration of which of the following drugs is most likely to reverse adverse effects caused by alpha2-adrenergic receptor stimulation?
Q50:
Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans has been associated with which of the following diseases in animals?
Q51:
A mature dog has loss of innervation to the right limb after being hit by a car. Which of the following changes is most likely to occur in the muscle mass of this limb?
Q52:
A cat develops a large palpable mass at the site of a subcutaneous vaccine injection administered one year ago. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q53:
What nerve(s) need to be blocked in order to dehorn cattle?
Q54:
What nerve(s) need to be blocked in order to dehorn goats?
Q55:
Several rabbits in a commercial meat operation have developed genital scabs, perineal ulcerations, and a crusty exudate around the nose and eyes. Microhemagglutination tests are positive for treponematosis. Which one of the following steps is most effective to treat this problem?
Q56:
Two bucket-fed veal calves are depressed and stunted and have sticky feces coating their hindquarters. Fluid-splashing sounds are audible during auscultation over the left flank when a calf is drinking. Passage of a stomach tube obtains a rancid-smelling liquid with a pH of 5.2 (normal rumen pH: 5.9–6.2). Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate treatment?
Q57:
A 6-year-old spayed female dog presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. Blood work shows hypercalcemia and azotemia. Urine specific gravity is 1.008. Abdominal ultrasound reveals bilateral adrenal masses. What is the most likely underlying condition?
Q58:
Which parasite is primarily responsible for causing 'husk' or parasitic bronchitis in cattle?
Q59:
In horses, which condition is characterized by rapid, involuntary muscle fasciculations and hyperesthesia, often triggered by noise or touch?
Q60:
What is the minimum dry matter intake percentage recommended for lactating dairy cows to prevent metabolic disorders?
Q61:
A flock of sheep shows sudden deaths in adults, with some exhibiting staggering, dyspnea, and blue discoloration of mucous membranes before death. Postmortem reveals subcutaneous edema and dark, unclotted blood. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Q62:
Which vitamin deficiency in poultry leads to curled toe paralysis and impaired nerve function?
Q63:
What is the primary mode of transmission for feline infectious peritonitis (FIP) virus?
Q64:
In swine, what agent causes 'diamond skin disease' characterized by rhomboid-shaped skin lesions?
Q65:
A dog presents with acute vomiting, diarrhea, and lethargy. Biochemistry shows elevated ALT, ALP, and bilirubin. Abdominal radiographs reveal a metallic density in the stomach. What is the most urgent initial treatment?
Q66:
Which of the following is a common cause of posterior paresis in adult dairy cows shortly after calving?
Q67:
What is the recommended site for intramuscular injections in cats to avoid nerve damage?
Q68:
A group of calves develops oral erosions, diarrhea, and lameness with coronary band lesions. The morbidity is high but mortality low. What is the most likely viral cause?
Q69:
In birds, what is the primary clinical sign of zinc toxicosis?
Q70:
Which drug is contraindicated in cats due to the risk of fatal pulmonary edema and pleural effusion?
Q71:
What is the most common cause of acute hemolytic anemia in dogs after onion ingestion?
Q72:
A horse exhibits bilateral serous nasal discharge, cough, and fever. Lymphadenopathy is absent. What is the most likely infectious agent?
Q73:
Which toxin causes 'tremorgenic mycotoxicosis' in dogs, characterized by muscle tremors and seizures?
Q74:
In dairy cows, what is the gold standard method for diagnosing subclinical mastitis?
Q75:
A rabbit presents with head tilt, nystagmus, and rolling. Otoscopic exam reveals purulent material in the ear canal. What is the most common bacterial pathogen involved?
Q76:
What is the mechanism of action of flumazenil in treating benzodiazepine overdose?
Q77:
Which parasite causes 'verminous pneumonia' in sheep and goats?
Q78:
A cat is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. What is the most common cardiac complication?
Q79:
In poultry, what disease is caused by a retrovirus and results in lymphoid tumors?
Q80:
A 3-year-old Thoroughbred colt is evaluated because of a two-day history of nasal discharge and a decreased appetite. He is housed in a stable with 15 other 2- to 4-year-old horses; three other horses have similar signs. Rectal temperature is 104.9°F (40.5°C), pulse rate is 48 beats/min, and respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min. Physical examination shows moderate mucoid nasal discharge bilaterally. Mucous membranes are moist and pink. Capillary refill time is less than 2 seconds. Submandibular lymph nodes are enlarged, warm, and painful on palpation. Thoracic and abdominal auscultation discloses no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation to give to the owner to minimize the spread of this disease to the other horses in the stable?
Q81:
Which condition in horses is associated with grazing endophyte-infected tall fescue grass?
Q82:
A dog presents with symmetrical alopecia, hyperpigmentation, and comedones on the trunk. Skin scrapings are negative. What is the most likely endocrine disorder?
Q83:
What is the primary vector for transmitting Leishmania infantum to dogs in endemic areas?
Q84:
In cattle, what is the most effective treatment for clinical anaplasmosis?
Q85:
A guinea pig presents with anorexia, weight loss, and joint swelling. Radiographs show periarticular soft tissue mineralization. What is the most likely nutritional deficiency?
Q86:
Which drug is a reversible inhibitor of monoamine oxidase B used for treating canine cognitive dysfunction?
Q87:
What is the most common cause of acute septic arthritis in neonatal foals?
Q88:
In swine, what is the causative agent of porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome?
Q89:
A dog presents with regurgitation shortly after eating. Survey radiographs show megaesophagus. What is the most common underlying cause in adults?
Q90:
Which disinfectant is effective against parvovirus and safe for use in veterinary environments?
Q91:
What is the typical incubation period for rabies in dogs?
Q92:
A herd of goats develops crusting dermatitis around the mouth and ears. Skin scrapings reveal mites with short legs and oval bodies. What is the causative agent?
Q93:
In birds, what is the most common clinical sign of lead toxicosis?
Q94:
Which hormone is primarily responsible for milk letdown in dairy cows?
Q95:
A cat presents with acute dyspnea and open-mouth breathing. Thoracic radiographs show a cranial mediastinal mass. What is the most likely tumor type?
Q96:
What is the target concentration for trough vancomycin levels in dogs to avoid nephrotoxicity?
Q97:
Which virus causes inclusion body hepatitis in chickens?
Q98:
In horses, what is the most common cause of acute laminitis in hospitalized patients?
Q99:
A dog has a bleeding mass on the spleen. Abdominal ultrasound shows hemoabdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q100:
What is the primary method of transmission for Mycoplasma haemofelis in cats?
Q101:
Which mineral deficiency causes 'steatitis' in cats?
Q102:
A cow presents with weight loss, chronic cough, and enlarged lymph nodes. Tuberculin skin test is positive. What is the most appropriate regulatory action?
Q103:
What is the most common clinical sign of hypomagnesemia in lactating dairy cows?
Q104:
In reptiles, what is a common consequence of chronic hypovitaminosis A?
Q105:
Which drug is a COX-1 sparing NSAID approved for use in dogs?
Q106:
A group of pigs develops vomiting, diarrhea, and high mortality in piglets under 1 week old. What is the most likely viral cause?
Q107:
What is the most common cause of acquired coagulopathy in dogs?
Q108:
In horses, what is the treatment of choice for strangles caused by Streptococcus equi?
Q109:
A dog presents with cervical ventroflexion, weakness, and exercise intolerance. Serum creatine kinase is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q110:
Which parasite causes 'rice grain' segments in dog feces?
Q111:
What is the maximum allowable concentration of carbon monoxide in veterinary anesthesia circuits?
Q112:
A flock of chickens shows respiratory distress, coughing, and rales. Necropsy reveals caseous exudate in trachea and conjunctivitis. What is the most likely agent?
Q113:
In cattle, what condition is caused by Clostridium chauvoei?
Q114:
A cat presents with unilateral Horner's syndrome. What is the most common underlying cause?
Q115:
What is the mechanism of action of ondansetron?
Q116:
Which virus causes 'blue eye' in dogs, characterized by corneal edema and uveitis?
Q117:
In sheep, what is the most common cause of acute abortion storms?
Q118:
A horse has a non-healing corneal ulcer. Fluorescein staining shows a superficial dendritic pattern. What is the most likely cause?
Q119:
What is the most sensitive diagnostic test for feline leukemia virus infection?
Q120:
Which drug is used to treat ventricular tachycardia in dogs?
Q121:
In dairy cows, what is the most common cause of left displaced abomasum?
Q122:
A dog presents with vomiting and abdominal pain. Serum amylase and lipase are markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q123:
What is the causative agent of 'wool slip' in alpacas?
Q124:
In birds, what is the most common clinical sign of zinc toxicosis?
Q125:
Which hormone deficiency causes diabetes insipidus in dogs?
Q126:
A group of feedlot cattle develops sudden death with epistaxis and bloody diarrhea. Postmortem shows pulmonary edema and widespread hemorrhage. What is the most likely cause?
Q127:
What is the most common site for colonic impaction in horses?
Q128:
A cat presents with acute blindness and dilated, unresponsive pupils. Retinal examination shows tapetal hyperreflectivity and attenuated vessels. What is the diagnosis?
Q129:
Which parasite causes 'cerebrospinal nematodiasis' in horses and abnormal behavior?
Q130:
In swine, what is the recommended site for intramuscular injections?
Q131:
What is the first-line antibiotic for treating canine urinary tract infections caused by E. coli?
Q132:
A horse presents with weight loss, ventral edema, and hypoproteinemia. Fecal egg count is high. What is the most likely parasite?
Q133:
Which virus causes 'mad itch' in cattle?
Q134:
In dogs, what is the most common cause of acute liver failure?
Q135:
What is the treatment of choice for canine demodectic mange?
Q136:
A rabbit presents with anorexia and reduced fecal output. Abdominal palpation reveals a doughy stomach. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q137:
Which drug is a mu-opioid receptor agonist used for severe pain in dogs?
Q138:
In poultry, what is the most effective method to control coccidiosis?
Q139:
A dog has a history of regurgitation. Contrast radiography shows esophageal dilation extending to the thoracic inlet. What is the diagnosis?
Q140:
What is the minimum dry matter requirement for feline diets to prevent urinary issues?
Q141:
Which bacterium causes 'wooden tongue' in cattle?
Q142:
A horse presents with sweating, colic, and muscle fasciculations. Serum chemistry shows elevated muscle enzymes. What is the most likely toxic plant ingestion?
Q143:
What is the most common cause of epistaxis in dogs?
Q144:
In sheep, what is the causative agent of contagious ecthyma?
Q145:
Which drug is used to reverse α2-adrenergic agonist sedation in veterinary medicine?
Q146:
A cat presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight gain. Physical exam shows bilateral symmetric alopecia. What is the most likely endocrine disorder?
Q147:
What is the most common cardiac murmur in young puppies with congenital heart disease?
Q148:
In cattle, what is the most effective treatment for infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis?
Q149:
A dog presents with hematuria and stranguria. Urinalysis shows calcium oxalate crystals. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Q150:
Which virus causes 'sore mouth' in sheep and goats?
Q151:
What is the primary cause of 'shipping fever' in cattle?
Q152:
A dog presents with ataxia, nystagmus, and head tilt. MRI shows cerebellar lesions. What is the most likely toxic cause?
Q153:
A 6-month old Labrador Retriever presents for failure to thrive and stranguria. Abdominal ultrasound shows a small liver and stones in the urinary bladder. Abdominal radiographs show no visible stones. How can this be explained?
Q154:
A 10-year old male castrated domestic short hair presents for lethargy. A blood smear shows Heinz bodies in the erythrocytes, and the blood is grossly brown in color. Which of the following is responsible for causing these changes in the blood of this cat?
Q155:
You shine a light in a cat's right eye and see that the right eye constricts but not the left eye. You then shine a light in the left eye and the left eye does not constrict but the right eye constricts. Where is there a lesion in the pathway?
Q156:
What profile would you expect in a dog with hypervitaminosis D?
Q157:
A lethargic cat arrives with bradycardia. You decide to perform an ECG and see a lack of P waves and a widened QRS complex. What do you suspect?
Q158:
A purebred Holstein breeder wishes to rid his dairy herd of Leptospira interrogans serovar Hardjo (type Hardjo-Bovis), which has been causing reproductive problems. Which steps are most likely to accomplish this goal?
Q159:
A dog presents with acute collapse and pale mucous membranes. Thoracic auscultation reveals a machinery murmur. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q160:
In cattle, what is the most effective treatment for clinical anaplasmosis?
Q161:
A horse with diarrhea has neutrophilia with toxic changes and hyperfibrinogenemia. What is the most likely cause?
Q162:
A cat presents with unilateral Horner's syndrome. What is the most common underlying cause?
Q163:
Which parasite causes 'cerebrospinal nematodiasis' in horses leading to ataxia and abnormal behavior?
Q164:
A rabbit presents with anorexia and reduced fecal output. Abdominal palpation reveals a doughy stomach. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q165:
What is the mechanism of action of ondansetron?
Q166:
In poultry, what disease is characterized by sudden death with postmortem findings of pale, fatty livers and enlarged kidneys?
Q167:
A dog has a bleeding mass on the spleen. Abdominal ultrasound shows hemoabdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q168:
What is the primary vector for transmitting Leishmania infantum to dogs in endemic areas?
Q169:
In swine, what is the recommended site for intramuscular injections?
Q170:
A flock of chickens shows respiratory distress and facial swelling. Necropsy reveals diphtheritic membranes in the trachea. What is the most likely agent?
Q171:
What is the treatment of choice for strangles caused by Streptococcus equi in horses?
Q172:
A dog presents with regurgitation. Contrast radiography shows esophageal dilation extending to the thoracic inlet. What is the diagnosis?
Q173:
Which disinfectant is effective against parvovirus and safe for use in veterinary environments?
Q174:
A cow presents with weight loss, chronic cough, and enlarged lymph nodes. Tuberculin skin test is positive. What is the most appropriate regulatory action?
Q175:
In reptiles, what is a common consequence of chronic hypovitaminosis A?
Q176:
Which drug is a reversible inhibitor of monoamine oxidase B used for treating canine cognitive dysfunction?
Q177:
A dog presents with acute vomiting and abdominal pain. Serum amylase and lipase are markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q178:
What is the most common cause of acute hemolytic anemia in dogs after onion ingestion?
Q179:
In horses, what is the most common cause of acute laminitis in hospitalized patients?
Q180:
A group of pigs develops vomiting, diarrhea, and high mortality in piglets under 1 week old. What is the most likely viral cause?
Q181:
Which hormone is primarily responsible for milk letdown in dairy cows?
Q182:
A cat presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight gain. Physical exam shows bilateral symmetric alopecia. What is the most likely endocrine disorder?
Q183:
In sheep, what is the causative agent of contagious ecthyma?
Q184:
What is the most common cardiac murmur in young puppies with congenital heart disease?
Q185:
A dog presents with hematuria and stranguria. Urinalysis shows calcium oxalate crystals. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Q186:
Which drug is used to reverse α2-adrenergic agonist sedation in veterinary medicine?
Q187:
In cattle, what condition is caused by Clostridium chauvoei?
Q188:
A horse presents with sweating, colic, and muscle fasciculations. Serum chemistry shows elevated muscle enzymes. What is the most likely toxic plant ingestion?
Q189:
What is the primary cause of 'shipping fever' in cattle?
Q190:
A dog presents with ataxia, nystagmus, and head tilt. MRI shows cerebellar lesions. What is the most likely toxic cause?
Q191:
Which vitamin deficiency in poultry leads to encephalomalacia and impaired neurologic function?
Q192:
In dogs, what is the most common cause of acute liver failure?
Q193:
A herd of goats develops crusting dermatitis around the mouth and ears. Skin scrapings reveal mites with short legs and oval bodies. What is the causative agent?
Q194:
What is the target concentration for trough vancomycin levels in dogs to avoid nephrotoxicity?
Q195:
Which bacterium causes 'wooden tongue' in cattle?
Q196:
A dog has a history of regurgitation. Contrast radiography shows esophageal dilation extending to the thoracic inlet. What is the diagnosis?
Q197:
In dairy cows, what is the most common cause of left displaced abomasum?
Q198:
What is the minimum dry matter requirement for feline diets to prevent urinary issues?
Q199:
Which virus causes 'blue eye' in dogs, characterized by corneal edema and uveitis?
Q200:
A cat is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. What is the most common cardiac complication?
Q201:
In horses, which condition is characterized by rapid, involuntary muscle fasciculations and hyperesthesia?
Q202:
A group of feedlot cattle develops sudden death with epistaxis and bloody diarrhea. Postmortem shows pulmonary edema and widespread hemorrhage. What is the most likely cause?
Q203:
A dog presents with cervical ventroflexion, weakness, and exercise intolerance. Serum creatine kinase is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q204:
Which parasite causes 'rice grain' segments in dog feces?
Q205:
What is the maximum allowable concentration of carbon monoxide in veterinary anesthesia circuits?
Q206:
In sheep, what is the most common cause of acute abortion storms?
Q207:
A horse has a non-healing corneal ulcer. Fluorescein staining shows a superficial dendritic pattern. What is the most likely cause?
Q208:
What is the most sensitive diagnostic test for feline leukemia virus infection?
Q209:
Which drug is used to treat ventricular tachycardia in dogs?
Q210:
In swine, what agent causes 'diamond skin disease' characterized by rhomboid-shaped skin lesions?
Q211:
What is the first-line antibiotic for treating canine urinary tract infections caused by E. coli?
Q212:
A horse presents with weight loss, ventral edema, and hypoproteinemia. Fecal egg count is high. What is the most likely parasite?
Q213:
A guinea pig presents with anorexia, weight loss, and joint swelling. Radiographs show periarticular soft tissue mineralization. What is the most likely nutritional deficiency?
Q214:
Which virus causes 'mad itch' in cattle?
Q215:
What is the treatment of choice for canine demodectic mange?
Q216:
Which drug is a mu-opioid receptor agonist used for severe pain in dogs?
Q217:
In poultry, what is the most effective method to control coccidiosis?
Q218:
A dog presents with symmetrical alopecia, hyperpigmentation, and comedones on the trunk. Skin scrapings are negative. What is the most likely endocrine disorder?
Q219:
What is the most common cause of epistaxis in dogs?
Q220:
Which virus causes 'sore mouth' in sheep and goats?
Q221:
In birds, what is the most common clinical sign of zinc toxicosis?
Q222:
Which hormone deficiency causes diabetes insipidus in dogs?
Q223:
A horse exhibits bilateral serous nasal discharge, cough, and fever. Lymphadenopathy is absent. What is the most likely infectious agent?
Q224:
Which toxin causes 'tremorgenic mycotoxicosis' in dogs, characterized by muscle tremors and seizures?
Q225:
In dairy cows, what is the gold standard method for diagnosing subclinical mastitis?
Q226:
A rabbit presents with head tilt, nystagmus, and rolling. Otoscopic exam reveals purulent material in the ear canal. What is the most common bacterial pathogen involved?
Q227:
What is the mechanism of action of flumazenil in treating benzodiazepine overdose?
Q228:
Which parasite causes 'verminous pneumonia' in sheep and goats?
Q229:
In poultry, what disease is caused by a retrovirus and results in lymphoid tumors?
Q230:
What is the minimum anesthetic period required for ovariohysterectomy in dogs using isoflurane to ensure adequate analgesia?
Q231:
Which condition in horses is associated with grazing endophyte-infected tall fescue grass?
Q232:
A flock of sheep shows sudden deaths in adults, with some exhibiting staggering, dyspnea, and blue discoloration of mucous membranes before death. Postmortem reveals subcutaneous edema and dark, unclotted blood. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Q233:
Which mineral deficiency causes 'steatitis' in cats?
Q234:
In cattle, what is the most effective treatment for infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis?
Q235:
A dog presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. Blood work shows hypercalcemia and azotemia. Urine specific gravity is 1.008. Abdominal ultrasound reveals bilateral adrenal masses. What is the most likely underlying condition?
Q236:
Which parasite is primarily responsible for causing 'husk' or parasitic bronchitis in cattle?
Q237:
What is the recommended site for intramuscular injections in cats to avoid nerve damage?
Q238:
A group of calves develops oral erosions, diarrhea, and lameness with coronary band lesions. The morbidity is high but mortality low. What is the most likely viral cause?
Q239:
Which drug is contraindicated in cats due to the risk of fatal pulmonary edema and pleural effusion?
Q240:
What is the primary mode of transmission for feline infectious peritonitis (FIP) virus?
Q241:
In swine, what is the causative agent of porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome?
Q242:
A dog presents with acute vomiting, diarrhea, and lethargy. Biochemistry shows elevated ALT, ALP, and bilirubin. Abdominal radiographs reveal a metallic density in the stomach. What is the most urgent initial treatment?
Q243:
Which of the following is a common cause of posterior paresis in adult dairy cows shortly after calving?
Q244:
What is the minimum dry matter intake percentage recommended for lactating dairy cows to prevent metabolic disorders?
Q245:
In birds, what is the primary clinical sign of lead toxicosis?
Q246:
Which virus causes inclusion body hepatitis in chickens?
Q247:
What is the most common cause of acquired coagulopathy in dogs?
Q248:
In reptiles, what is a common consequence of chronic hypocalcemia?
Q249:
Which drug is a COX-1 sparing NSAID approved for use in dogs?
Q250:
A cat presents with acute blindness and dilated, unresponsive pupils. Retinal examination shows tapetal hyperreflectivity and attenuated vessels. What is the diagnosis?
Q251:
What is the most common site for colonic impaction in horses?
Q252:
A lethargic cat arrives with bradycardia. You decide to perform an ECG and see a lack of P waves and a widened QRS complex. What do you suspect?
Q253:
A 4-year-old female spayed domestic short-haired cat presents for a cough of 3 weeks duration. All of these diseases can result in dyspnea and cough. Which one has the potential to cause acute death?
Q254:
A 1-year-old Thoroughbred stallion is presented with difficulty walking for the past week. Examination reveals ataxia in the pelvic limbs and a tendency to overreach in all four limbs when ambulating. Which one of the following choices is the most common cause of these signs in the horse?
Q255:
Which of the following is the most common skin tumor in horses?
Q256:
A previously healthy lactating dog 2 weeks after whelping shows signs of restlessness, whining, fever, muscle spasms, and convulsions. What is the most likely cause?
Q257:
A patient sustained a severe inguinal hernia after trauma. Which of the following is NOT a component of the internal inguinal ring?
Q258:
A 3-year-old female spayed mixed-breed dog presents for lethargy and back pain. Survey radiographs of the spine show vertebral endplate lysis at C3-C4, C4-C5, and L6-L7. What is your next step?
Q259:
What is the appropriate treatment for a dermatitis known to be caused by a food allergy in a dog?
Q260:
Which of the following can be recommended for short-term use to treat periodontal disease in dogs?
Q261:
A 10-year-old Golden Retriever has presented for exercise intolerance and voice change. Stridorous breathing is noted on inspiration. Which medication will help assist in evaluation of laryngeal function during sedated exam?
Q262:
A dog presents with hematuria and abdominal pain. Abdominal ultrasound reveals hyperechoic material in the renal pelvis bilaterally. What is the most likely cause?
Q263:
In cattle, which electrolyte imbalance causes 'downer cow syndrome' with inability to rise after calving?
Q264:
A cat presents with acute vomiting and hypersalivation. Household plants include lilies. Blood work shows elevated creatinine. What is the toxin mechanism?
Q265:
What is the minimum incubation period for canine distemper virus in susceptible dogs?
Q266:
Which parasite causes 'rice grain' segments in cat feces?
Q267:
In horses, what is the treatment of choice for equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM)?
Q268:
A piglet presents with neurological signs including paddling and opisthotonos. The sow was not vaccinated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q269:
Which vitamin deficiency causes 'crazy chick disease' in poultry?
Q270:
What is the most common cause of hypoadrenocorticism in dogs?
Q271:
A bird presents with feather picking and white powdery deposits on feathers. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q272:
In ruminants, what is the primary site of vitamin B12 synthesis?
Q273:
Which anesthetic agent is contraindicated in sight hounds due to prolonged recovery?
Q274:
A dog presents with non-regenerative anemia and thrombocytopenia. Bone marrow aspirate shows numerous blast cells. What is the diagnosis?
Q275:
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for feline infectious peritonitis?
Q276:
In cattle, what is the most common cause of acute bloat?
Q277:
Which drug is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias in cats?
Q278:
A rabbit presents with head tilt and nystagmus. What is the most common non-infectious cause?
Q279:
What is the mechanism of action of maropitant?
Q280:
In poultry, what disease causes greenish diarrhea and sudden death with enlarged bronze livers?
Q281:
A horse presents with excessive sweating and muscle fasciculations after exercise. Serum chemistry shows elevated muscle enzymes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q282:
Which parasite causes 'backyard dermatitis' in dogs?
Q283:
What is the most common cause of acute renal failure in cats?
Q284:
In swine, what virus causes 'blue eye' with corneal opacity and neurological signs?
Q285:
Which antibiotic is contraindicated in rabbits?
Q286:
A dog presents with pale mucous membranes and hemoglobinuria after going for a hike. What is the most likely cause?
Q287:
What is the primary neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction?
Q288:
In cattle, which condition causes 'wooden tongue'?
Q289:
A cat presents with unilateral nasal discharge and facial deformity. Radiographs show bony lysis. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q290:
Which vitamin is synthesized by rumen microbes in cattle?
Q291:
What is the most common congenital heart defect in cats?
Q292:
In birds, what is the treatment for Chlamydia psittaci infection?
Q293:
A dog presents with acute collapse and brick-red mucous membranes. What is the most likely toxicosis?
Q294:
Which hormone stimulates milk production in lactating animals?
Q295:
In horses, what is the most common site for squamous cell carcinoma?
Q296:
A calf presents with foul-smelling diarrhea and dehydration. What is the most common viral cause?
Q297:
Which drug is used to treat acetaminophen toxicosis in cats?
Q298:
What is the minimum dry matter intake recommended for maintenance in adult horses?
Q299:
A reptile presents with soft bones and pathologic fractures. What is the most likely deficiency?
Q300:
Which parasite causes 'walking dandruff' in rabbits?
Q301:
In dogs, what is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
Q302:
What is the primary vector for Lyme disease transmission in dogs?
Q303:
A cow presents with sudden drop in milk production and fever. Milk appears clotted and watery. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q304:
Which anesthetic agent causes 'wooden chest' syndrome in swine?
Q305:
A dog presents with facial swelling and pain when opening mouth. Serum chemistry shows elevated creatine kinase. What is the diagnosis?
Q306:
In poultry, what is the most effective treatment for coccidiosis?
Q307:
What is the mechanism of action of omeprazole?
Q308:
A horse presents with ataxia and urinary incontinence. What is the most likely site of spinal cord lesion?
Q309:
Which virus causes 'fading puppy syndrome' with myocarditis and sudden death?
Q310:
In ruminants, what is the treatment of choice for liver flukes?
Q311:
A cat presents with unilateral exophthalmos and third eyelid prolapse. What is the most common cause?
Q312:
Which hormone is measured to diagnose hyperthyroidism in cats?
Q313:
What is the most common cause of hematuria in castrated male goats?
Q314:
In dogs, what is the most common malignant oral tumor?
Q315:
Which drug is used to treat myasthenia gravis in dogs?
Q316:
A guinea pig presents with swollen joints and reluctance to move. What is the most likely deficiency?
Q317:
What is the gold standard for diagnosing Equine Cushing's disease?
Q318:
In birds, what is the most common cause of feather destructive behavior?
Q319:
A dog presents with acute blindness and dilated pupils. Retinal exam shows hemorrhage and detachment. What is the most likely cause?
Q320:
Which parasite causes 'verminous pneumonia' in calves?
Q321:
What is the treatment of choice for canine leptospirosis?
Q322:
In horses, what is the most common cause of acute laminitis?
Q323:
A reptile presents with dysecdysis and corneal opacity. What is the most likely deficiency?
Q324:
Which drug reverses opioid overdose in veterinary patients?
Q325:
What is the most common congenital heart defect in dogs?
Q326:
In cattle, what is the primary cause of white muscle disease?
Q327:
A cat presents with chronic vomiting and weight loss. Abdominal ultrasound shows thickened intestines. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q328:
Which virus causes 'thumping' in growing rabbits?
Q329:
What is the mechanism of action of fipronil?
Q330:
In poultry, what is the causative agent of fowl pox?
Q331:
A horse presents with profuse watery diarrhea and leukopenia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q332:
Which hormone stimulates cortisol release from adrenal glands?
Q333:
A dog presents with hemoptysis. Thoracic radiographs show a caudal lung mass. What is the most likely cause?
Q334:
In ruminants, what is the treatment of choice for anaplasmosis?
Q335:
Which drug is used for medical management of hyperadrenocorticism in dogs?
Q336:
A bird presents with polyuria and weight loss. Blood work shows hyperglycemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q337:
What is the most common cause of anterior uveitis in horses?
Q338:
In dogs, what is the most common cause of acute liver failure?
Q339:
Which parasite causes 'head shaking' in horses?
Q340:
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for canine parvovirus?
Q341:
In cattle, what is the most common cause of traumatic reticulitis?
Q342:
A rabbit presents with diarrhea and weight loss. Fecal float shows coccidian oocysts. What is the treatment?
Q343:
Which drug is a reversible MAO-B inhibitor used for canine cognitive dysfunction?
Q344:
What is the most common cause of acute dyspnea in cats?
Q345:
In swine, what is the treatment of choice for swine dysentery?
Q346:
Which vitamin deficiency causes 'stargazing' in poultry?
Q347:
A dog presents with tenesmus and hematochezia. Rectal exam reveals a painful dorsal rectal fold. What is the diagnosis?
Q348:
What is the primary vector for heartworm transmission?
Q349:
In horses, what is the most common site for melanoma development?
Q350:
Which hormone stimulates ovulation in bitches?
Q351:
A cow presents with dry gangrene of the teats. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q352:
What is the mechanism of action of diazepam?
Q353:
A second-lactation Holstein cow has a two-day history of anorexia and decreased production of milk one week after calving. The cow has a heart rate of 90 beats/min and is approximately 5% dehydrated. The abdomen is distended on the right side when viewed from behind. A "ping" is heard with simultaneous auscultation and percussion of the right side extending from the middle of the paralumbar fossa to the ninth rib. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q354:
An 18-month-old female domestic shorthaired cat is being evaluated to determine whether she is pregnant. The client reports that the cat was bred 50 days ago. Rectal temperature is 104.0°F (40.0°C). On physical examination, an enlarged uterus is palpated and a small amount of yellowish discharge is observed on the vulva. Abdominal radiographs show enlarged uterine horns but no fetal skeletons. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q355:
Abortions due to brucellosis in cattle typically occur at what stage of pregnancy?
Q356:
A cow presents with urea/non-protein nitrogen toxicity. What is the treatment of choice?
Q357:
A 3-month-old calf suddenly died after vigorous exercise. Necropsy reveals endocardial plaques in the left ventricle. What advice should be given?
Q358:
Which pair of neonatal calf diarrheas both have zoonotic potential?
Q359:
Swainsonine toxicity in livestock is associated with ingestion of which plant?
Q360:
What is the primary clinical sign of hypocalcemia in dairy cows?
[1] ICVA Veterinary Educational Assessment (VEA), National Board of Veterinary Medical Examiners, 2011
[2] Vega, Zachary. NAVLE Study Guide: Clinical Scenarios and Species Focus Strategy for to Ace the US & Canadian North American Veterinary Licensing Examination + 1200 Q&As with Detailed Explanations.